Staff Nurse jobs in Karnataka- 766 Vacancies

National Health Mission,
766 Staff Nurses Recruitment- 2019
Invites applications for the post of Staff Nurse
Published @ www.nursingwork.in

Post: Staff Nurse

Pay Scale: Rs. 32,200

Vacancies: 766




Qualification: B.Sc Nursing/Post Basic B.Sc Nursing

Click here for Other details

PDO Recruitment 2019 Karnataka notification

PDO RECRUITMENT 2019
www.coastalhut.in

Many candidates asked me to provide the notification of PDO Recruitment in Karnataka, In Sparda Spoorthi and Spardha Jagattu book also published that Panchayath Development Offiicer Recruitment is called for. But there is no proper notification found in http://rdpr.kar.nic.in/English/recruitment.asp also, http://rdpr.kar.nic.in belongs to Rural development and Panchayath Raj Department- Karnataka Government- in the year 2019



Many candidates search in google for PDO Recruitment- 2019, PDO Recruitment circular in Karnataka, you better to open the following website for more information regarding PDO Recruitment 2019
LIKE US TO GET KARNATAKA GOVERNMENT JOBS NOTIFICATIONS ON FACEBOOK
http://kea.kar.nic.in/


2016 PDO Recruitment Notification published on 07-09-2016
Commencement of entry of online Application 16.09.2016 
Last Date to Enter online Application 15.10.2016 
Last date to pay the fees in the Computerized e-Post Offi ce 18.10.2016



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For PDO Exam questions in Kannada click here  For PDO Exam Question papers
visit www.questionpapersdownload.com

KPSC Provision Select List

KARNATAKA  PUBLIC  SERVICE  COMMISSION , 'UDYOGA SOUDHA' BENGALURUE - 1
150(127+23 HK)POSTS OF INSPECTOR OF MOTOR VEHICLES IN THE TRANSPORT DEPARTMENT

In  pursuance  of this  Office Notification No. R(2)131/15-16/PSC  dated:04/02/16,the Provisional Select List of candidates for 150(127+23 HK)posts   of INSPECTOR OF MOTOR VEHICLES in the TRANSPORT DEPARTMENT prepared on the basis   of Rule8(2) of  Karnataka  Civil  Services  (Direct  Recruitment  by Competitive   Examinations and Selection) (General) Rules 2006 and amended Rules,2015, is hereby   published for information of the candidates.         Candidates likely to be affected  by this list may file objections,if any,   addressed to the SECRETARY, KARNATAKA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION  UDYOGA SOUDHA,   BENGALURU-560001 within 7 days from the date of this Notification.


Click here to view list of selected candidates

For more details click here or visit www.kpsc.kar.nic.in


SSC CGL Exam Questions with answer- 2019

COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION 2019
QUESTION PAPER-2019
The Question Paper of Combined Graduate Level Examination 2019 conducted by SSC-Staff Selection Commission is published here by www.questionpapersdownload.com

Section : General Awareness
Q.1 Akbar was succeeded by his son, Salim, who took the title of_______, meaning 'Conqueror of the World'.
Ans 1. Shah Jahan
2. Badshah
3. Jahapana
4. Jahangir

Q.2 William Crookes was a physical chemist who discovered and named the element ________.
Ans 1. plutonium
2. germanium
3. beryllium
4. thallium

Q.3 The Victoria Memorial, conceived by Lord Curzon, represents the architectural climax of _________ city.
Ans 1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Mumbai
4. Kolkata

Q.4 Who was the prime minister of India during ''the Emergency'' between the year 1975 to 1977?
Ans 1. Indira Gandhi
2. Charan Singh
3. Rajiv Gandhi
4. Moraj Desai

Q.5 Name the longest river in Asia.
Ans 1. Yangtze
2. Yenisei
3. Amazon
4. Nile

Q.6 The Red Fort and the Jama Masjid in Delhi stand out as towering achievements of architecture during the reign of________.
Ans 1. Jehangir
2. Shah Jahan
3. Akbar
4. Aurangzeb




Q.7 There were three bronze medallists from India at the 38th GeeBee Boxing Tournament which was held at Helsinki, Finland. Who amongst the following is NOT one of them?
Ans 1. Sumit Sangwan
2. Naveen Kumar
3. Dinesh Dagar
4. Sachin Siwach

Q.8 _________ received the very first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901 for his discovery of X-rays.
Ans 1. Wilhelm Röntgen
2. William Thomson
3. William Crookes
4. Louis Pasteur

Q.9 ___________ won a silver medal at the 38th GeeBee Boxing Tournament which was held at Helsinki, Finland.
Ans 1. Naveen Kumar
2. Sachin Siwach
3. Sumit Sangwan
4. Mohammed Hussamuddin

Q.10 Pierre Curie shared the 1903 Nobel Prize in Physics with his wife, Marie Curie, and Henri Becquerel for their discoveries related to _______.
Ans 1. radioactivity
2. X-rays
3. mirror images
4. thermodynamics

Q.11 Which of the following is the longest rivers in India?
Ans 1. Ganga
2. Brahmaputra
3. Godavari
4. Kaveri

Q.12 Electron was discovered in the year 1897 by _________.
Ans 1. Nicola Tesla
2. Isaac Newton
3. T. A. Edison
4. J J Thomson

Q.13 World _________Day 2019 was observed on 23 March with the theme 'The Sun, the Earth and the weather'.
Ans 1. Geological
2. Meteorological
3. Geographical
4. Astrological




Q.14 Which river passes through maximum number of countries?
Ans 1. Rhine
2. Amazon
3. Danube
4. Volga

Q.15 Who won the Nobel Prize in 1906 for his neuron doctrine?
Ans 1. Henry Moseley
2. Pierre Curie
3. Luis Alvarez
4. Santiago Ramón y Cajal

Q.16 Humayun's heir,_____, was born in exile and was only 13 years old when his father died.
Ans 1. Babur
2. Shah Jahan
3. Akbar
4. Jahangir

Q.17 Who had built Taj Mahal, for his wife Mumtaz Mahal along the banks of the Yamuna River in Agra?
Ans 1. Jahangir
2. Aurangzeb
3. Shah Jahan
4. Akbar

Q.18 On March 23rd, India observes _______ day/divas as a tribute to Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru on their death anniversary.
Ans 1. Vidroh Divas
2. Protest Day
3. Tribute Day
4. Shaheed Divas

Q.19 Which Indian monument was built by Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh in the year 1799?
Ans 1. Leh Palace
2. Mattancherry Palace
3. Mysore Palace
4. Hawa Mahal

Q.20 In its Global Economic Outlook report, Fitch Ratings cut India’s economic growth forecast for the next financial year 2019-20 starting from April 1 to ___% from its previous estimate of 7%.
Ans 1. 6.8
2. 5.4
3. 6.1
4. 6.2

Q.21 Justice_____ , who retired from the Supreme Court of India on 6 July 2018, has been appointed as the new chairperson of the National Green Tribunal.
Ans 1. Sonam Phintso Wangdi
2. Justice Jawad Rahim
3. Adarsh Kumar Goel
4. Raghuvendra Singh

Q.22 _______ Constition Amendment Act, 2002 provided for free and compulsory elementary education to all children.
Ans 1. 86th
2. 85th
3. 87th
4. 84th

Q.23 Indian naval officer Commander _____ became the only Asian to participate in the prestigious Golden Globe Race (GGR), which commenced from Les Sables d’Olonne harbour in France on 1 July 2018.
Ans 1. Mahendra Nath Mulla
2. Rajesh Dhankhar
3. Abhilash Tomy
4. Pradeep Singh

Q.24 Which of the following was the most important characteristic of India's trade throughout the colonial period?
Ans 1. Export deficiency
2. Import surplus
3. Export surplus
4. Import deficiency

Q.25 A ____________ occurs when a government's total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
Ans 1. Budgetary Deficit
2. Revenue Deficit
3. Current Account Deficit



4. Fiscal Deficit

Section : English Comprehension
Q.1 Select the synonym of the given word.

EXEMPT
Ans 1. prevent
2. reduce
3. exclude
4. hinder

Q.2 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

India is the second largest ______ of cotton in the world.
Ans 1. manufacturer
2. creator
3. grower
4. producer

Q.3 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

The Doon Valley with all its lights look beautiful at night from the top of the mountain.
Ans 1. look beautiful
2. from the top
3. with all its lights
4. at night

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

On tentherhooks
Ans 1. happy
2. anxious
3. angry
4. unhappy

Q.5 Select the wrongly spelt word.
Ans 1. neighbouring
2. noticable
3. negligible
4. nuisance

Q.6 Select the wrongly spelt word.
Ans 1. bridle
2. brittle
3. bristel
4. brisk

Q.7 Select the antonym of the given word.

SOBER
Ans 1. serious
2. nervous
3. agitated
4. calm

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

During the reign of Aurangzeb, the last of the Mughals, there (1)______ revolts against the empire. (2)______ were the revolts of the Marathas, the Sikhs, the Jats and (3)______ others. After the death of Aurangzeb, the Mughal empire began to (4)______ fairly fast. The country soon (5)______ into smaller territories many of which became more or less independent.
SubQuestion No : 8
Q.8 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.
Ans 1. were
2. have been
3. are
4. was

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

During the reign of Aurangzeb, the last of the Mughals, there (1)______ revolts against the empire. (2)______ were the revolts of the Marathas, the Sikhs, the Jats and (3)______ others. After the death of Aurangzeb, the Mughal empire began to (4)______ fairly fast. The country soon (5)______ into smaller territories many of which became more or less independent.
SubQuestion No : 9
Q.9 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 2.
Ans 1. These
2. This
3. That
4. It

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

During the reign of Aurangzeb, the last of the Mughals, there (1)______ revolts against the empire. (2)______ were the revolts of the Marathas, the Sikhs, the Jats and (3)______ others. After the death of Aurangzeb, the Mughal empire began to (4)______ fairly fast. The country soon (5)______ into smaller territories many of which became more or less independent.
SubQuestion No : 10
Q.10 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 3.
Ans 1. many
2. every
3. more



4. each

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

During the reign of Aurangzeb, the last of the Mughals, there (1)______ revolts against the empire. (2)______ were the revolts of the Marathas, the Sikhs, the Jats and (3)______ others. After the death of Aurangzeb, the Mughal empire began to (4)______ fairly fast. The country soon (5)______ into smaller territories many of which became more or less independent.
SubQuestion No : 11
Q.11 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 4.
Ans 1. disperse
2. disintegrate
3. disturb
4. disrupt

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

During the reign of Aurangzeb, the last of the Mughals, there (1)______ revolts against the empire. (2)______ were the revolts of the Marathas, the Sikhs, the Jats and (3)______ others. After the death of Aurangzeb, the Mughal empire began to (4)______ fairly fast. The country soon (5)______ into smaller territories many of which became more or less independent.
SubQuestion No : 12
Q.12 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 5.
Ans 1. broke off
2. broke out
3. broke up
4. broke in

Q.13 Select the antonym of the given word.

SWERVE
Ans 1. straighten
2. lurch
3. droop
4. deviate

Q.14 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

a large, deep pot used both in the oven and as a serving vessel.
Ans 1. cauldron
2. skillet
3. casserole
4. sauce-pan

Q.15 Select the synonym of the given word.

RAMPANT
Ans 1. excessive
2. limited
3. rare
4. gentle

Q.16 Select the correct active form of the given sentence.

The chairs were being arranged in the examination hall by the staff.
Ans 1. The staff has arranged the chairs in the examination hall.
2. The staff has been arranging the chairs in the examination hall.
3. The chairs were arranging the staff in the examination hall.
4. The staff was arranging the chairs in the examination hall.

Q.17 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. It has been a leading producer of both industrial and agricultural goods.
B. The United States of America holds a dominant position in the world because of its high economic development.
C. Because of its enormous output, the United States has a major share in world trade.
D. It is also a leader in the development and application of innovative technology.
Ans 1. DABC
2. ABCD
3. BCAD
4. BACD




Q.18 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Please take the guest to his room on the 6th floor.
Ans 1. You are requested to take the guest to his room on the 6th floor.
2. Let the guest be taking to his room on the 6th floor.
3. The guest should be took to his room on the 6th floor.
4. You must take the guest to his room on the 6th floor.

Q.19 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

The Japanese artist Yoh Nagao was busy splashing the wall from colours.
Ans 1. splashing the wall
2. was busy
3. from colours
4. The Japanese artist

Q.20 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

Flowers or leaves woven together in a circle for placing on a coffin or a grave
Ans 1. garland
2. wreath
3. bouquet
4. bunch

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.

We can't live without water, will we?
Ans 1. can we
2. won't we
3. No improvement
4. do we

Q.22 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. Since then Boeing has received over 5,000 orders for the aircraft and has delivered 371 to date.
B. The Max first started flying commercially in 2017.
C. Boeing had huge hopes for its 737 Max aircraft and viewed it as a key part of its future.
D. However, the company's market value has plummeted by nearly $26 billion since the crash in Ethiopia.
Ans 1. CBAD
2. DCBA
3. ABCD
4. BCDA

Q.23 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Lend an ear
Ans 1. to force someone to listen
2. to not make trouble
3. to not tell someone something
4. to pay attention to
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.




His school was 7 km away from his house. I wondered how he covered so long distance daily on foot.
Ans 1. No improvement
2. so long the distance
3. such a long distance
4. such long distance
Q.25 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The company management is of the opinion that not wearing a suit and tie at the workplace could create a bad ______ on clients.
Ans 1. notion
2. impression
3. outlook
4. response
Click here for Answers

Click here to view Complete Question Paper with Answers


KPSC FDA and SDA Exam Key Answer Published by KPSC

KARNATAKA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION- KPSC
KEY ANSWERS OF SDA and FDA  EXAM HELD ON 16/06/2019.(OFFICIAL KEY ANSWER)
Published by www.coastalhut.in

The Key Answers of KPSC SDA Examination conducted on 16/06/2019 and FDA Exam conducted on 09/06/2019 is published by coastalhut.in on 16/06/2019. Click on the following links/Images to download key answers in pdf. format. The answers are marked in Yellow Colour. Offiicial Key Answer Published by KPSC on 25/06/2019

Click here to view the Key Answers published by KPSC on 25/06/2019

FIRST DIVISION ASSISTANT       351   361
OBJECTION FORMAT    351   361

SECOND DIVISION ASSISTANT  352   362  OBJECTION FORMAT   352   362
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Click here to download Key Answers of SDA Exam- General Awareness- Paper III -Subject Code 369 Pdf Format

Click here to download Key Answers of SDA Exam- General Kannada Pape II-Subject Code 370

Click here to download Key Answers of SDA Exam- General English Paper II-Subject Code 371

The Final Key answers will be published by KPSC Soon.

Karnataka Graduate Primary Teachers Recruitment Exam Key Answer

KARNATAKA TEACHERS RECRUITMENT
Key answers of Graduate Primary Teachers Recruitment for classes 6 to 8 - 2019-20.

Key answers of Graduate Primary Teachers Recruitment for classes 6 to 8 - 2019-20. conducted in the month of May 2019 is published

EXAM-1- Paper-1: SUBJECT: General English Key Answers
Q. No Key Answer ANSWER
26 1 can't
27 4 The singing of the birds
28 2 Proper noun
29 4 Imperative sentence
30 3 Across
31 3 bought



32 3 doesn't he?
33 2 in
34 3 C,B,A,D
35 4 Cooker
36 1 saves nine
37 1 the
38 1 what a splendid performance !
39 4 played
40 3 why did Hari go to the market?
41 4 put off
42 1 growl
43 1 Just in time
44 1 General
45 3 calf, call, calm, card
46 1 sleep
47 2 on the bank of the river
48 3 throwing stones at something
49 4 her brother had fallen into the river
50 1 scream

Click here to download Key Answer in Pdf Format
EXAM-1- PaperQ.

No Key Answer
51 3
52 4
53 2
54 4
55 3
56 3
57 1
58 3
59 1
60 1
61 2
62 4
63 2
64 4
65 3
66 4



67 2
68 2
69 3
70 4
71 4
72 2
73 4
74 1
75 3
GPSTR -2019
-1: SUBJECT: GK/CA/MA Key Answers
ANSWER
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Article 311
Nagpur
Bertha Von suttner
Olgoto karczuk
Bihu and Bagurumba
Rajasthan
Budapest
Larsen & Toubro ltd
Rabindranath Tagore
Mangalore
Chandrashekar Kambar
Goa
Vadodara
Vidarbha
1
st April 2010
Development of roads
GIRXVEP
24
18
28
-60
2
5 km
1: SUBJECT: GK/CA/MA Key Answers
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Chandrashekar Kambar
5 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-1 - Paper-1: SUBJECT: Child Developmet & Pedagogy
Key Answers
Q.
No
Key
Answer ANSWER
76 3 Formal operational
77 4 It is a Mechanical process
78 1 Divergent thinking
79 3 Heuristic approach
80 4 Intrinsic motivation
81 2 Reinforcing
82 1 Co-operative learning
83 3 Justice
84 2 Sustaining the attention
85 2 Learning disability
86 2 Integration
87 3 Attitude
88 2 Aptitude test
89 3 Stage of conventional morality
90 2 Sublimation
91 2 Approach-Approach
92 3 Preparing well in advance and rehearsing it
93 2 Sociometric technique
94 2 Gender identity
95 2 A sense of identity
96 3 Observational learning
97 2 Perception
98 4 Common goals
99 4 Negative transfer of learning
100 3 Highlighting the successful tasks done
6 | P a g e
101 3 Belonging and love needs
102 3 b, a, d, c
103 3 Observation
104 2 Democratic leadership
105 3 Naturalisitc Intelligence
106 2 Creative thinking
107 1 Arranging mutual interaction under
teacher's supervision
108 3 Self esteem
109 3 Balancing of emotions
110 4 Expecting complements from others
111 3 Experiential learning
112 3 Achievement Motivation
113 3 Positive transfer
114 3 Dreaming
115 4 Maturation
116 1 Respond to the total behaviour of the
student who approaches for help
117 3 Enrichment programme
118 3 Counselling
119 2 Law of Readiness
120 2 Providing for the special talents found in
challenged children
121 3 Lecturing
122 2 Clear and systematic in praising
123 3 Language Development
124 3 Attention division
125 2 Extrovert
7 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-1 - Paper-1: SUBJECT: Health & Value education Key
Answers
Q.
No Key Answer ANSWER
126 3 Truthfulness
127 2 Muscular weakness of trunk region
128 2 While teaching life of national martyrs
129 1 Ascorbic acid
130 1 Praise
131 2 Copper
132 4 Use of bio-degradable material
133 3 Postural deformity
134 2 Swadhyaya
135 1 Throat
136 2 Pranayama
137 1 Contaminated water
138 4 try to be like the other teacher
139 3 Change of work
140 3 Humanitarian value
8 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-1 - Paper-1: SUBJECT: Computer education Key
Answers
Q. No Key Answer ANSWER
141 2 ctrl+alt+del
142 1 LINUX
143 3 Design
144 3 F7
145 2 Insert



146 3 4
147 2 1PB (peta byte)
148 2 Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
149 3 .mdb
150 1 personal area network
9 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-1 - Paper-2: SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
Key Answers
Q.
No
Key
Answer ANSWER
1 3 b and d are correct
2 3 a-i b-iv c-ii d-iii
3 1 a, d, b, c
4 3 b, c, a, d
5 1 a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
6 3 a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii
7 1 Chaitanya
8 4 b, c, a, d, e
9 2 a-v, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
10 4 a only
11 3 Devaraya II
12 1
Krishana, Govinda II, Dhruva, Govinda III,
Amoghavarsha
13 3 3
rd Saturaday of November
14 4
For the violation of the constitution the president
can be removed through an impeachment
15 1 Apartheid is an affront to human rights
16 3 371J
17 3 1993
18 4 Dr. M.N. Srinivas
19 3 Only c is wrong
20 3
Unni Krishnan v/s The government of
Andrapradesh
10 | P a g e
21 1 b, a, d, c
22 3 Santhanam Commission
23 2
Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar
Pradesh
24 2 a, b and d only
25 2
Excess of govt expenditure over its revenue
receipts and non-debt capital receipts.
26 4 a and b
27 2
The minimum cash which the Bank have to
keep with themselves as a ratio of their
deposits.
28 3
To develop 100 cities all over the country
making them citizen friendly and sustainable
29 2 Kiran Muzumdar Shah
30 4 Post Office
31 2
lending money collected through long term and
short term finance
32 4 a and b are correct
33 3 Tea
34 2 It has neither water nor air
35 4
Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam and Arunachala
Pradesh
36 2
A and R are correct but R is not the correct
explanation of A
37 3 The Plateau of Peninsular
38 4 Bellara of Tumkur
39 2 Ennore, Chennai, Tuticorin, Cochin
40 4 Telangana
11 | P a g e
41 2 Altitude (above MSL)
42 3 The research institutes of India in Antarctica
43 2 iii i iv ii
44 4 Preparation of charts
45 3 Story telling method
46 3 Diagnostic Evaluation
47 2 Essay type
48 2 Globe
49 4 Lake Titicaca
50 3 Only c is correct
12 | P a g e
EXAM-1 - Paper-2: SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS & SCIENCE Key
Q.
No Key Answer
1 4
2 2
3 1
4 3
5 3
6 2
7 1
8 1
9 4
10 4
11 3
12 3
13 4
14 2
15 4
16 3
17 3
Introduce the physical and chemical changes
without teaching
18 1
19 4
20 2
21 1
22 2
GPSTR -2019
2: SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS & SCIENCE Key
Answers
ANSWER
3.6x106
-ve
At the mean position
f = uv/u+v
4
Parsec



Length
1.3km
2Mv
mol m-3
Dual nature of electron
1 is correct but 2 is incorrect statement
N2O5

C2H5
CH3 C Br
H
Principle
Introduce the physical and chemical changes
without teaching symbols of elements and their
valencies
AIDS
Selective hybridization
carry DNA into a new cell
Exonuclease
potassium
2: SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS & SCIENCE Key
1 is correct but 2 is incorrect statement

C Br
Introduce the physical and chemical changes
symbols of elements and their
carry DNA into a new cell
13 | P a g e
23 1 Amazon rainforest
24 3 Communication skill
25 1 deductive laboratory method
26 3 4n+3
27 3 3, 5, 11, 13
28 2 `2700
29 2 11!/2!2!2!
30 2 0.62
31 4 8 : 12 : 21
32 3 35cm
33 4 (y-1), (y+1), (y+2), (y-2)
34 2 x + 5/x = 2
35 3 0
36 3 x
2
 + 3x
3/2 / x
37 1 30°
38 1 1
st Quadrant
39 3 120°
40 2 10 cm
41 3 15 cm
42 1 163 cm2
43 1 103 / 3
44 3 64
45 2 8
46 1 24cm
2
47 1 contradictory method
48 2 Inductive
49 3 NROER
50 1 Kilpatrick
14 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-1 - Paper-2: SUBJECT: LANGUAGE ENGLISH Key Answers
Q.
No Key Answer ANSWER
1 3 e-a-d-b-c-f
2 3 Make more effort than expected
3 2 Imply
4 1 Anxious to
5 4 scent, air
6 4 Besides
7 3 Can they?
8 1 How long will you take to complete the task?
9 3 Capitalisation
10 2 Quantitative adjectives
11 4 You have a point there
12 1 Had been rude
13 1 Claimed 48 lives
14 2 seriousness
15 3 Me
16 1 The, an
17 2 a b a a b
18 1 formidable
19 1 following that
20 1 dice
21 2 From, through
22 3 a side
23 4 tour, merit, generate, compose
24 2 - ly
25 4 he would carry him on his back
26 3 aroused
27 4 Personification
28 2 All the books
15 | P a g e
29 3 Can't
30 3 Requested
31 3 after, where, that, if
32 2 gh
33 4 a catalogue
34 3 Lets' keep our fingers crossed
35 1 It is a very pleasant surprise
36 2 praised
37 3 to hunt
38 3 The entire block is being demolished by them
39 2 probably
40 3 with
41 4 before
42 4 conserve
43 1 whenever
44 1 total physical response
45 1 Students mostly work in groups and learning and
knowledge are interactive and dynamic
46 3 skimming
47 2 arriving at a logical conclusion
48 4 Kinesthetic learner
49 2 Flash card
50 2 Comprehension
16 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019

GPSTR -2019
EXAM-2 - Paper-1: SUBJECT: General English Key Answers
Q. No Key Answer ANSWER
26 1 Rabbit
27 3 Said something funny
28 2 He played a clever trick
29 2 Prove what Choo - Choo said
30 3 Saw
31 2 Stone
32 4 An adjective
33 4 Punctual
34 1 For
35 4 Exclamatory sentence
36 3 who is the nightingale of India?
37 1 Is n't it ?
38 3 offering help
39 3 get across
40 2 everybody
41 2 grows
42 3 the
43 4 extraordinary
44 1 Is
45 3 d-a-c-b
46 3 Dictionary
47 2 Ploughs our fields
48 2 Painting, Pattern, Photo, Portrait
49 1 c-e-b-d-f-a
50 3 otherwise
18 | P a g e
EXAM-2 - Paper-1: SUBJECT: GK/CA/MA Key Answers
Q.
No Key Answer
51 2
52 2
53 3
54 1
55 3
56 3
57 3
58 1
59 3
60 2
61 1
62 4
63 2
64 3
65 2
66 3
67 4
68 1
69 4
70 3
71 1
72 4
73 1
74 3
75 3
GPSTR -2019
1: SUBJECT: GK/CA/MA Key Answers
ANSWER
Heggodu
Jharkand
Chethan Sharma
Barack Obama
Gangadhar Rao Deshpande
Baht
21st February
Poet
Nelson Mandela
W.V.Raman
Stronger partnership for a bright future
Mumbai to Goa
SC-34: ST-15
Atal Bihari Vajapayee
China
New Delhi
R. Praggna nandhaa
10
16
81
392
500
14th
1: SUBJECT: GK/CA/MA Key Answers
Gangadhar Rao Deshpande
Stronger partnership for a bright future
19 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-2 - Paper-1: SUBJECT: Child Developmet & Pedagogy Key
Answers
Q.
No Key Answer ANSWER
76 3 Case study
77 4 Trial and error
78 3 Conditioning



79 3 Scheme
80 4 Self esteem
81 2 Sublimation
82 3 Intrinsic motivation
83 4 Understanding the feelings of oneself & of others
84 2 Gender Bias
85 2 Noam Chomskey
86 3 Conservation
87 3 Cooperative learning
88 3 Maturation
89 4 Androgyny
90 4 Imaginary audience
91 3 Adequate counselling
92 3 explain the social implications of that behaviuor
93 3 Teachers' Talk on code of conduct
94 2 hepls to perceive meaningfully & completely
95 3 Appreciatng the task performed
96 2 Positive transfer
97 2 Bandura's social learning theory
98 3 Dyslexia
99 3 Get us achievement satisfaction for ever
100 3 Creative thinking
20 | P a g e
101 3 Different Motor activities
102 2 aptitude
103 2 Identity
104 4 Plan effective teaching learning experiences
105 4 Inclusive classroom
106 2 Eysench Personality questionnaire
107 2 Attitude
108 3 Delinquent children
109 2 Assessment of total personality of the learners
110 1 autocratic
111 4 c,b,a,d
112 3 becoming an active member of the peer group
113 3 brings egoclashes among the members
114 3 Guilford and associates
115 3 Varying the stimuli suitably
116 2 Removal of pleasant stimulus increases the
probability of desirable behaviour
117 3 Independent variable
118 3 lecture method can be used
119 3 Intensity
120 2 Eysenck
121 4 mentally healthy people
122 1 Approach-approach conflict
123 2 Anecdotal record
124 2 The zone of proximal development
125 3 difficulty in child rearing
21 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-2 - Paper-1: SUBJECT: Health & Value education Key
Answers
Q. No Key Answer ANSWER
126 1 Loyal commitment
127 2 Heredity
128 1 Obedience to social rules
129 3 Regular defecation
130 1 Equality
131 3 75-85 litre
132 3 Truthfulness
133 3 Worm originated
134 2 Sympathy
135 3 1 gram water
136 1 Heredity and environment
137 3 Rickets
138 2 Professional idealism of teacher
139 2 four days to three weeks
140 3 Traditional
22 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-2 - Paper-1: SUBJECT: Computer education Key
Answers
Q. No Key Answer ANSWER
141 1 UNIVAC
142 4 Expansion bus
143 1 Bar code reader
144 3 Static Random Access Memory
145 1 2
50 bytes = 1 peta byte
146 4 mfyAgfniqfyUwf
147 2 Home
148 3 ctrl + h
149 1 =AVERAGE (range)
150 4 hacking
23 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-2 - Paper-2: SUBJECT: Social Science Key Answers
Q. No Key Answer ANSWER
1 1 Vascodagama
2 2 John wh cliff
3 1 Fairy Queen
4 1 Petrarch
5 4 Juan Sebastian Elkano
6 3 Caesarean operation
7 4 Tasman - Rocky Mountain
8 1 A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
9 1 Thomas carlyle
10 3 Mother and children of the Sun
11 1
Both A and R are true, 'R' is the correct explanation
of 'A'
12 1
A and R are correct, R is the correct explaination of
'A'
13 2 As all the major decisions are taken here
14 2 Grama sabha
15 4 2003
16 3 Article 52
17 2 42nd Amendment
18 4 First Principles
19 2 Little Republics
20 2 Article 17
21 2 London
22 3 I
st April 1935
23 2 Primary Sector
24 3 Only c and d
25 2 Globalization
26 3 Savings Bank Account
24 | P a g e
27 3 (a), (b) and (c) are correct
28 4 ii iii iv i
29 1 South - West Monsoon
30 4 3:30pm
31 3 Pakistan, India, China
32 1 a, b and c
33 1 Westerlies
34 3 Oyashio current, Labrador current, Humbolt wind
35 1
Oraganize a discussion on dimensions of social
science
36 2 Contract learning
37 2 It should be teacher centred
38 4 Skill
39 1 Respecting different opinions and customs
40 4 Rajasthan
41 2 Talcher
42 3 Rihand Project
43 2 1556 CE
44 1
to inculcate critical appreciation for conservation and
environmental concerns
45 4 Pragmatism
46 2 A technique to enhance comprehension
47 3 Monsoon forests
48 3 Pifnar
49 4 Italy
50 1 Count cavour
25 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-2 - Paper-2: SUBJECT: Maths and Science Key
Answers
Q.
No
Key
Answer ANSWER
1 2 2:3
2 2 straight line
3 3 remains the same
4 2 Diaptre
5 4 ohm-metre
6 2 318:1
7 4 No unit
8 3 2ms-1
9 2 10N
10 1 11.2L
11 3 ns (n-2)f  (n-1)d np
12 4 O2
13 2 FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
14 2 CH3-CH2-NH-CH3
15 4 2-chloro-2-methyl propane
16 1 Hypothesis
17 1 A few concepts and equations
18 2
1% crossing-over between two sites on a
chromosome
19 1 Antihistamines
20 2
Removed during maturation of
pro-insulin to insulin
21 2 Inorganic Nutrients from humus
22 1 Cleavage
23 2
It is the means of producing a large
population of individuals genetically
identical to the parents
26 | P a g e
24 1 Experimental method
25 4 trichloromethane
26 1 3
27 3 9
28 3 `5000
29 1 10
30 2 26
31 1 11/4
32 3 21 and 28
33 4 8
34 3 7
35 3 3 and 1
36 1 27
37 4 3/5
38 1 2:1
39 4 7.5 cm
40 3 90°
41 2 PQ2
/PM2
42 3 1711.3cm2
43 2 4/3
44 4 64
45 2 (AB)1=A1 B1
46 2 4375
47 2 Bacon
48 4 Instructional objectives
49 2 Project method
50 1 Computations
27 | P a g e
GPSTR -2019
EXAM-2 - Paper-2: SUBJECT: LANGUAGE ENGLISH Key
Answers
Q.
No
Key
Answer ANSWER
1 3 d - a - e - b - f - c
2 2 to agree with someone
3 3 effective
4 2 are waiting
5 2 peddle, wares
6 1 apostrophe, question mark
7 1 relative pronouns and interrogative
pronoun
8 3 between, for
9 3 bring out
10 4 haven't you?
11 4 why did Juhi help Nisha in learning
sanskrit?
12 1 through
13 2 Abraham and Tomar set new records.
14 1 fond
15 2 me
16 1 a b a b c c
17 3 of course, you can
18 2 an, the
19 1 utterly
20 2 you
21 2 skillful
22 2 under
23 3 judge, use, place, spelt
24 1 -ment
25 1 asked the boys not to play on the grass.
26 3 maintain
28 | P a g e
27 2 simile
28 3 Everybody
29 1 may not
30 4 asked
31 1 as soon as, and, but, and
32 1 p
33 3 an atlas
34 2 Stop eating like a horse
35 2 How brightly the sun shone on a hot
summer day!
36 4 permanent
37 1 to laugh
38 1 is brought
39 4 embarked
40 2 halt
41 2 desperately



42 1 falters
43 1 postponed
44 4 Interactive Approach
45 4 focussed reading
46 2 2000 words families
47 1 speaker's utterance and is responsible for
fluency
48 2 Children are viewed as active learners
49 2 Sound Symbol  Sense
50 4 practice

Click here to download Key Answer in Pdf Format

Note: Applicants who desired to file objections to Key Answers must generate the ‘Objection format’ document provided in the website, and submit the objection with supporting documents   on or before 25  June 2019

For more details click here or visit http://www.schooleducation.kar.nic.in

Engineering Jobs in MRPL Karnataka

MANGALORE REFINERY AND PETROCHEMICALS LIMITED (A Subsidiary of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited) CIN No. : L23209KA1988GOI008959 Kuthethoor Post, Mangalore – 575030 Ph- 0824- 2882126/2128/2113
Invites applications for the following Engineering Posts
Published by https://engineeringjobsinindia.blogspot.com

Graduate Apprenticeship Training

1 Chemical Engg.
2 Civil Engg.
3 Electrical
4 Information technology
5 Instrumentation Engg.
6 Mechanical Engg.




Educational Qualification :* (BE/B.Tech./B.Sc. Engineering) in the respective discipline.

SCALE OF PAY,PROBATION AND EMOLUMENTS Candidates selected shall be placed on probation as per Company Rules in A grade in the scale of pay of Rs.60,000-1,80,000. In addition DA (on IDA pattern), HRA/Township Accommodation, Perks & Allowances under cafeteria approach and other allowances/benefits as per Company Rules will be admissible.

Age Limit : As per MRPL rules

Job Location : Mangalore (Karnataka)

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION & OTHER ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA a) Candidate shall possess valid GATE-2019 score in the corresponding GATE-2019 papers mentioned above. b) Candidates should have passed qualifying degree examinations (base qualifications specified at above Table-1) and awarded bachelor’s degree in engineering/technology/ Master of Science(M.sc) in the above mentioned disciplines from recognized Indian Universities / Institutes.


c) Candidates applying against Un-reserved posts, posts reserved for EWS & posts reserved for OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) should have minimum 60% aggregate marks in the qualifying degree examination (base qualifications specified at above Table-1). Candidates applying against posts reserved for Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST) and posts reserved for Persons with Disability (PWD) category should have minimum 50% aggregate marks in the qualifying degree examination (base qualifications specified at above Table-1). d) All qualification must be from UGC recognized Indian University / UGC recognized Indian Deemed University or AICTE approved Autonomous Indian Institution / Concerned Statutory Council (wherever applicable)/Board of Technical Education. e) Minimum aggregate percentage of marks in the essential qualification as indicated above shall be aggregate of all semesters to be calculated taking average of all semesters/years, irrespective of the weightage to any particular semester/year by the Institute/University. Aggregate percentage of marks shall not be rounded off (for example 59.99 % not be rounded off as 60 %). f) In case CGPA/OGPA/Grade is awarded by university, the equivalent percentage shall be derived based on the formula provided by the University for converting the grade to percentage. If no formula is prescribed by the University, the equivalence in percentage of marks will be established by multiplying the CGPA/OGPA/Grade by a factor of 10 subject to the condition that the candidate has to submit documentary proof that the University does not have any formula for conversion of CGPA/OGPA/Grade to percentage. Relaxation in percentage of marks in the qualifying examination for SC/ST category is applicable only to the posts reserved for SC/ST as the case may be. g) Engineering Degree can be B.E / B.Tech / B.Sc. Engineering (04 year course). h) Candidates having five years BE/B.Tech + ME/M.Tech integrated dual degree in engineering in relevant discipline shall also be considered at par with B.E /B.Tech/B.Sc. Engineering. i) Candidates pursuing/completed M.Tech in any disciplines, other than those mentioned above, for being eligible, must have completed BE/B.Tech/B.Sc. Engineering in one of the above mentioned qualifying degree examination (base qualifications specified at above Table-1) and have valid GATE-2019 score in the above mentioned qualifying degree examination, are eligible to apply. j) Integrated ME/ M.Tech candidates will be eligible, if they have already completed the course requirement for award of BE/ B.Tech/B.SC. Engineering in one of the qualifying degree examination (base qualifications specified at above Table-1) and have completed ME/ M.Tech. k) If a candidate pursues integrated ME/M.Tech Programmes and is awarded two separate degrees ie. BE/B.Tech and ME/M/Tech, then the % of marks/CGPA obtained by the candidates in BE/B.Tech will be considered to determine the eligibility of the candidates. l) If a single degree i.e. ME/M.Tech is awarded to the candidates at the end of integrated ME/M.Tech programme, then the consolidated marks obtained by the candidate at the end of integrated ME/M.Tech programme will be reckoned for deciding the eligibility.




SELECTION PROCESS For the above posts the selection methodology will comprise of GATE 2019 Score, Group Discussion and Personal Interview. a) The short-listing of candidates will be done based on the percentage of marks obtained by them in the GATE 2019 examination. Score from GATE-2018 or from any previous GATE examination is not valid. The marks obtained out of 100 in the GATE Score Card will be taken into consideration for short listing the candidates. The candidates will be called for further selection process in the ratio of 1:5 (i.e. 1 Post: 5 candidates, as per the reservation of posts).In case multiple candidates are having same GATE marks, then the candidate who has got higher marks in the Base qualification mentioned at Table-1 above will be considered for further selection process. b) Further Selection process comprises of Group Discussion and Personal Interview. c) There will not be any separate cutoff/ qualifying marks for Group Discussion and Personal Interview. The Final merit list of candidates shall be prepared based on total sum of weightage of GATE score, Group Discussion and Personal Interview Marks. 85% weightage shall be given to GATE score and 5 marks will be given for Group Discussion and 10 marks for Personal Interview.

Last Date for Online Application 04/07/2019




Click here for Official Notification

Click here to apply Online

For more details click here or visit https://eapplicationonline.com/